Pescator Posted January 14, 2005 Report Share Posted January 14, 2005 Is it just me, or are the no specific rules as to which sara a one should use when spelling a specific thai word? Or when one should leave it out altogther? ÊÇÑÊ´Õ ʡŹ¤Ã µÃ¡éÃà I supplied some random examples above to illustrate. Sawasdee Sakon Nakon Dtagror (I used what I believe is the general transliteration) Would anyone care to offer an explanation of the rules, if there are any, for I am certainly not familiar with those and have to rely on my memory to get the spelling right. Cheers Hua Nguu Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
samak Posted January 15, 2005 Report Share Posted January 15, 2005 there are rules but there are as many exceptions as sand in the SAHARA Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Pescator Posted January 15, 2005 Author Report Share Posted January 15, 2005 hehe, why am I not surprised That was also my impression. I also posted this question because I regularly hear people saying that "thai spelling is predominantly consistent". That is not really my impression although one could always put different values in the word predominantly. Cheers Hua Nguu Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Pescator Posted January 16, 2005 Author Report Share Posted January 16, 2005 samak said:there are rules So mayby you would let the rest of us in on the secret? Cheers Hua Nguu Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
samak Posted January 16, 2005 Report Share Posted January 16, 2005 sorry, quite sometime already that i quit my Thai lessons; but maybe somebody who is currently learning Thai could ask his teacher! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
asdf Posted January 19, 2005 Report Share Posted January 19, 2005 I'll have a tentative go. If the syllable has no final consonant, you don't need sara a (first syllable in ÊÇÑÊ). If the syllable does have a final consonant, you do need it (second syllable in ÊÇÑÊ, because otherwise you'd have a short sara aw sound). Both the sara a's in ʡŹ¤Ã are in the first category too. µÃ¡éÃà is trickier. My guess is that it's used with prefixes: I don't know what µà signifies on its own, but that vowel only seems to be used at the start of words. The tone mark on the second syllable also seems to show that the two syllables are separable to some degree (or maybe were in the distant past). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
asdf Posted January 20, 2005 Report Share Posted January 20, 2005 Oh, and à is also used after a consonant cluster to avoid ambiguity. For example, µÃà could be "dton" without the vowel. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Pescator Posted January 20, 2005 Author Report Share Posted January 20, 2005 Thanks mate Your explanation makes sense to me and you gave it in layman terms which actually allowed me to understand it Never was much good at grammatical stuff. Much appreciated. Cheers Hua Nguu Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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